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By Chris Owen

(1) Why was Jesus Christ baptized?

I hope you don't say that it was to wash away His sins! Jesus was thirty years of age when he was baptized by John, Luke 3:23  Jesus told John that he must be baptized to fulfill all righteousness. We know from Duet. 6:25 and Phil. 3:9 that this righteous was contained in THE LAW. Thus Jesus was telling John that it becometh us to fulfill the LAW. And what was the law that concerned Christ? His anointing in being initiated and entering the Priesthood! See  Number 4: 3, 23, 30, 35, 39, 43, 47, Exodus 29: 4-7, Leviticus 8:6-12, 

(2) Why is the word "repent" not used in the book of John?

In John 20:30-31, we are told that this book was written to unbelievers for the purpose of salvation. In many of the other books, we find that they are addressed to saints (saved people). In fact, a good case can be made to prove that John is the only book in the N.T. written to unbelievers. If this is true (and, it is), then every truth necessary for salvation must be found in John (and, it is). Why then, does it not contain the word "repent"? Have the traditionalists misapplied this word?

(3) Who are the meek that will inherit the earth (MT 5:5)? Why don't they inherit heaven?

(4) If you have eternal security, why would you be in danger of hell fire by calling your brother a fool? MT 5:22

(5) Should you give anyone money that asks you for it? MT 5:42

(6) Does God give you everything that you ask for? MT 7:7-8, LK. 11:9-10

(7) Why will the children of the kingdom be cast out into outer darkness? MT 8:12 What is outer darkness?

(8) Why were the apostles told to preach only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? MT 10:5-7 Why not to Gentiles?

(9) Why were the apostles told that the 2nd coming would occur before they had completely covered the cities of Israel? MT10:23

(10) What is blasphemy against the Holy Ghost? MK3:29

(11) Why did Jesus Christ say that He was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? MT15:24

(12) Why did Jesus not acknowledge the gentile woman until she acknowledged Israel as her masters? MT15:22-28, MK7:26-29

(13) If Peter knew and was preaching the gospel, why did he rebuke his Lord when told that He would die and be raised again the
third day? MT16:21-23, MT17:23

(14) Why were the disciples told that some of them would not die before the 2nd coming? MT16:28, LK9:27 Was Jesus Christ lying?

(15) Why are we told in JN 3:16,36,5:24, etc. that the only requirement for eternal life is to believe in the report of Jesus Christ, whereas in MT19:16-17, a man is told to keep the commandments in order to receive eternal life? Were things different then? If this point differed, is it possible that the things that Christ taught during His earthly ministry are different than those truths for us gentiles today? Is it possible that Christ wasn't lying when He claimed to have been sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? What is the truth for today, anyhow? Maybe we should follow the operating instructions and rightly divide the word of truth (2 TIM 2:15) and also try (test) the things that differ (PHIL 1:10 margin).

(16) Why are the disciples told in MT 24:13, MK13:13 that in order to be saved that they must endure to the end? Were not the disciples already saved? What does saved mean, anyhow? Maybe we should start following the rules of grammar and, every time we see the words saved or salvation, ask the question: "Saved from what?" and "Saved to what?".

(17) The 2nd coming of our Lord in MT 24:30 occurs at the end of the tribulation (vs 29). Isn't this the same coming as in 1 THESS 4? Is there a 3rd coming? Why do both of above references talk about clouds, angels and trumpets? Is the so-called pre-trib "rapture" something that has been manufactured by people who do not want to go through the tribulation? What is the tribulation anyway? Whose tribulation is it? Is it Jacobs trouble? What does that mean for Gentiles?

(18) The churches of today get their doctrine of the Lord's supper (communion) mainly from MT26:28-29, LK22:7-20. Please notice that the contexts (e.g. MT 26:2,17,18,19) involves the Passover, a Jewish feast (JN 6:4). Also notice that gentiles (strangers) can't participate in the Passover. Are we Jews? What tribe are you from?

(19) What does rising from (out from) the dead mean? MK9:10, LK 20:35 , etc. Does this indicate that some of the dead were still in the grave? 

(20) Is the "hell" mentioned in LK 9:43-48 the eternal abode of unbelievers or is it gehenna, the valley of Hinnan, the city dump mentioned in ISA 66:24?

(21) Is MK 16:15-18 marching orders for us today? Is water baptism a requirement for salvation? Those of you who can cast out devils, speak in tongues and heal the sick, why can't you take up serpents and drink poison without dying? Those of you that can't do these things, why can't you? Is it possible that these verses don't apply to us today? If this is so, is it possible that Mark is not truth for today? You can't pick and choose. Either it. all applies to us or none of it applies to us. ALL scripture is FOR our learning and admonition, NOT  ALL scripture is written TO us for today.

(22) Why did the Lord close the book? LK 4:20 Why didn't He finish the quote from ISA 61:1-2 that He started in vs 19?

(23) LK 16:19-26 is the standard proof of the existence of an eternal fiery hell. Is this story historical fact or is it a parable? This story was told to the Pharisees, LK 16:14-15.You should recall that our Lord spoke to all but His disciples in parables when the Kingdom went into Mystery form. LK8:10

(24) Do you think long robes are appropriate wear for a man of God? LK 20:46

(25) LK 23:43 is a proof verse of immediately going to heaven after death. Is paradise heaven? It seems from REV 2:7 that it is associated with the tree of life, which is associated with the garden of Eden, which is associated with the earth (GEN 2:9) and the new earth (REV 21:24, 22:2). How many times is Paradise used in the bible anyway?

Another problem with this verse is that the translators of the KJV made an error, probably due to subconscious bias. They put the comma in the wrong place. The way it appears in the KJV, it violates the rules of Greek grammar. The rules are: When "today" follows a verb, it is connected to that verb. This applies to our verse in question. "Today" is attached to "say". Other examples of this are MT 21:28 and LK 22:34.

When "today" is separated from the verb by "hoti", it is attached to the next clause. Examples are LK 19:9, 4:21 and MK 14:30. The word "hoti" does not appear in LK 23:43.

Therefore, our phrase should read as follows: "Verily I say unto thee today, thou shalt be with me in paradise".

See "Today" Luke 23:43Paradise 

(26) According to JN 3:13, Jesus Christ is the only man that has has ever ascended up to heaven. What about all of the dead believers? Where are they? Maybe the Bible is right after all. Maybe the denominations are wrong when they preach that the resurrection has already occurred. 2 TIM 2:18 Maybe dead believers are actually dead (1 THESS. 4:16) in the dust of the earth (DAN 12:2). Maybe they will rise simultaneously in a few assorted resurrections. 1 COR. 15:23, HEB 11:35.

(27) Why did Jesus Christ tell the gentile woman that salvation is of the Jews? JN. 4:22 What about us?

(28) The word "reverend" appears only once in the entire Bible (PS 111:9), where it is used of God. Do you think that preachers should use this title of themselves?

(29) Has any charismatic preacher ever had a two-way conversation with God? JN. 5:37

(30) JN. 5:39 is a good rule for all of us to follow. Do you just read the scriptures, as the Jews did or, do you search the scriptures?

(31) Many people say that the words of Jesus (red letters) are enough for them. Are the red letters more inspired than the black letters? Did Christ speak His own words or those of God? JN.  14:10 Are not all of the words in the Bible written by God? 2 PET. 1:21, 2 TIM. 3:16 Of course, this attitude keeps a man into Christ's earthly ministry, which was to the lost sheep of the house of  Israel, and keeps him away from Paul's ministry, which was to the Gentiles. Satan probably loves for a man to adopt this attitude.2 COR. 5:15-16

(32) When was the book of John written? Tradition (a horrible word) says that John wrote his Gospel in 96 AD. There are several scriptural proofs that deny this but perhaps one of best is JN. 5:2. John says that there is (at the time of his writing) a pool at Jerusalem called Bethesda. This pool did not exist after Titus destroyed Jerusalem in 70 AD. So, John was written before 70 AD.

(33) If Jesus Christ spent 40 days teaching the apostles about the Kingdom of God, they must have learned every tiny facet of it. Therefore, the question in ACTS 1:6 couldn't have been a stupid one, as many "scholars" contend. In fact, the question, "Wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel" was, in every respect, a valid one. The kingdom which is to be established ON EARTH (1000 years) was promised  throughout scripture to Israel only and will be a perfect restoration of the imperfect kingdom of David and Solomon - 100%, Jewish. All the apostles wanted to know was when their kingdom would be restored. Do you Gentiles have any part in this kingdom? What tribe do you belong to?

(34) Is the ACTS period something new or is it a continuation of Christ's earthly ministry? ACTS 1:1

(35) Many "scholars" feel that a mistake was made and that Paul should have been selected as the replacement for Judas as the 12th apostle. ACTS 1:20-26 We find the qualifications for this position in vs. 21 and 22. The candidates must have accompanied the other 11 during Christ's earthly ministry beginning at his baptism and been a witness of his resurrection. Did Paul have these qualifications? Is it possible that Paul had a different ministry?

(36) When the 12 came together and were filled with the Holy Ghost, there was a sound from heaven as a rushing mighty wind and there appeared cloven tongues like as of fire. These are sensory phenomena. Did you see and hear these things when you were filled with the Holy Ghost? Why not? ACTS 2:24,4:31

(37) When you talk in tongues, can non English speaking people hear you speak in their own language? ACTS 2:6-12 Why do charismatic churches send their missionaries to language school? Will the antichrist speak in tongues (many Languages)? Probably.

(38) Who was Peter talking to in ACTS 2 and 3? Were there any Gentiles involved who were not proselytes?  Is a Gentile allowed to even partake of Pentecost? Or was it against the Law? ACTS 2:10,14,22, 36, 3:12,25,etc.

(39) Do you really believe that our Lord went to Christendom's concept of "hell"? I would strongly suggest that you check out the Hebrew and Greek meanings of this word and it's usage in both testaments. Bullinger's Companion Bible gives a thorough and accurate study of the word. see Sheol  Appendix 35 You will find, as I did , that it means "grave". "Hell", as a place of everlasting torment, finds it's origins in pagan religions and, of course, was adopted by the Popish church. The English, word "hell" originally meant a damp, dark place, such as a cellar or a helmet.

(40) The pentecost "church" operated as a communistic organization. ACTS 2:44-45,4:32 Does your church operate like this?

(41) Ananias and Sapphira broke the law and were striken dead. Why doesn't this happen today?

(42) During the book of Acts, could anyone receive the Holy Ghost without the laying on of the apostles hands? ACTS 8:18,19:6, 1 TIM 1:6 Are there any apostles alive today?

(43) During the Acts period, what sort of Gentiles were ministered to? ACTS 10:2,22,35,13:16,26,etc. Is there evidence that any heathen Gentile, such as you or I, were ministered to during the Acts period? Why not?

 What is the Everlasting Covenant to Abraham that affected all men of all nations in regards to Salvation up till Acts 28:28? Gen 12

(44) Is there any evidence that the 12 ministered to any Gentile; other than Cornelius and his group in ACTS 10? Are you still so sure that your church began in ACTS 2?

(45) What was the requirement for salvation during Christ's earthly ministry? Mt. 19:17

(46) Why did Paul, during the Acts period, always first preach the word in the synagogues of the Jews? ACTS 13:5,14:1,17:2, 10,17,18:4,19,19:8 Why did Paul turn to the Gentiles once after the Jews had refused his word? ACTS 13:46,18:6,etc. Why is this pattern of Jews first not followed today?

(47) In ACTS 19:32,39,41, when discussing the pagan worshippers of Diana, the word "assembly" is the same Greek word that is translated "church" elsewhere. What does the word "church" really mean?

(48) Why did Paul go through the Jewish purification rites in ACTS 21:24,26 ? Were the Jews (which absolutely made up the so-called "church" formed at Pentecost) still under the law?

(49) Did Paul get new revelations? ACTS 26:16,EPH 3:3,2COR 12:7 Did the 12 also receive these revelations? Search and see.

(50) During the Acts Period. Paul (the only apostle to the gentiles) wrote 7 books: ROM,1&2COR,GAL,1 & 2 THESS. and HEB. During this time, did he teach anything that did not have it's foundations in the Old Testament? ACTS 26:22,17:11,20:27, 28:23,ROM 1:1-2 In Ephesians, he gives new information that was not found in prophecy! EPH 3:5 In fact, by careful study, you'll find that almost all of the information found in Paul's post-Acts epistles (EPH, PHIL, COL, 1 & 2 TIM, TITUS and PHILEMON) is new information for the Gentiles which is different than that found in any other book in the Bible.

Do any of you have any idea of the wonderful, unique doctrine, blessings and walk that is found in these books? How much longer will Christendom try to rob Israel of her blessings? How much longer will Christendom adhere to doctrine from those books written to Jews and to those gentiles grafted into Israel under the covenants of promise. We were never under any covenant! ROM 9:4, HEB 8:8,10, JER. 31:31 Our truth is found in Paul's post-Acts epistles.

(51) Carefully read ACTS 28:28, "Be it known therefore unto you (Jews) that the salvation (Jesus Christ) of God is sent unto the gentiles, and that they will hear it (Him - see ISA 62:11)". The curse in ACTS 28:26-27 is from ISA 6:9-10 and is quoted for the 6th and last time and is finally
fulfilled. At this time, about 63AD, Israel became Lo-Ammi , not my people. HOSEA.1:9, 3:4, etc. This curse is quoted in the first 6 books of the N.T., MT 13:14, MK 4:12, LK 8:10, JN 12:40, ACTS 28:26-27 and ROM 11:8, all points of crisis. Including ISA 6:9-10, it appears 7 times, the number of completion. At this point, the first time since the call of Abraham, salvation is available to Gentiles like us, without our having to enter through the nation Israel. See the mystery in EPH 3:3-6. One day, Israel will again be Ammi - my people. At that time, she will receive all of the promises that were made to only her by God. Why should we want to steal Israel's blessing when ours are much better!

(52) Is Romans written to believers or unbelievers? ROM 1:6-7

(53) Why are the words used for "sleep" never used for the unbeliever?

(54) During the Acts period of time, did the Jew have the advantage? ROM 3:1-2, 15:27 Why?

(55) Does ROM 11:17-24 hold true today? Have we Gentiles been grafted into Israel?

(56) Is the "one body in Christ" of ROM 12:5 the same as the "body of Christ" in EPH 4:12, etc.?

(57) Is 1COR written to saved people? 1COR 1:2

(58) Why did Paul say, "For Christ sent me not to baptize" in 1COR 1:17?

 (59) Do the gentiles require signs? 1 COR 1:22 What is the purpose of tongues? 1COR 14:22

(60) Why did Paul say what he did about marriage in 1COR 7:27? Could it have been that he thought that the time was short
(1COR 1:29) and that marriage would interfere with the work at hand? He believed that some that were alive then, would
be alive at the second coming. Mt 16:28, LK 9:27. Doesn't it seem reasonable (from these and many other similar verses)
that the writers of all N.T. books except Paul's post-Acts epistles expected the imminent return of Jesus Christ and knew nothing of the 2000 year dispensation of the mystery in EPH 3:1-7? Of course, nothing has changed. Christendom still knows nothing about the mystery in Ephesians.

There is no doubt that everyone prior to ACTS 28:28 believed in the imminent return of Christ. 1COR 7:29, ACTS 1:6, MT 16:28, 24:34, 10:22-23, 23:34-39, 26:64, JN 11:26, 1THESS 4:17, 5:23, JAS 5:8, MK 13:13, LK 9:27, 21:31-36, 1COR 1:7-8, 15:51, HEB 10:37, ROM 13:11-12, MK 14:62, REV 1:1,3,7, 22:10, 12,20 Some of these verses are so absolute that they have made some people question the accuracy of scripture. So, why didn't He come as promised? Was the Holy Spirit lying? God forbid! The answer to this puzzle is very simple. We are
told in MT 23:39, LK 13:35, 2COR 3:16 and ACTS 3:19-21 that this promise was (and, still is) conditional upon Israel's acceptance of Jesus Christ as the promised Messiah. The knowledge of this fact solves a lot of problems. It explains the urgency of time - don't get married or buy anything (read 1COR 7:26-33 very carefully). It explains why the gentiles were grafted into Israel to provoke them to jealousy. ROM 11:11,
etc. It explains why Paul went to the Jews first and the 12 went exclusively to the Jews.

So, Israel got their 40 year trial period (the book of Acts) and failed. When Paul preached to the Jews in Rome in ACTS 28, Jesus Christ had been preached to all of the then inhabited world. But, as we know, they rejected Him and that is why Paul pronounced the curse of Isaiah for the 7th and last time. At that point, Israel was no longer the Israel of God and the Savior was sent to the heathen gentiles.

If you will study the Bible with these things in mind, you will find that the scriptures suddenly open up to you. There will be no more conflicting passages. Everything can be read literally and everything suddenly make sense. God is not the author of confusion. Man is.

(61) Why does Paul say to keep the ordinances in 1COR 11:2 and yet, tells you that they have been done away with in EPH 2:15, COL 2:14 and COL 2:20?

(62) Why are tongues at the bottom of the lists in 1COR 12:10 and 1COR 12:30?

(63) If the "body" in 1COR 12:12-27 (notice that the context is gifts) is the same as the "body" in EPH and COL, why, in 1COR, does Paul identify some members with parts of the head (ears, eyes, vs 16-17) when we are told in COL that Jesus Christ is the "head" of the body? Why are some parts "uncomely" in the 1 Cor. Body? Are there any uncomely parts in the Body of Christ of which He is Head?

(64) Do all of the members speak in tongues? 1COR 12:10,30

(65) Why didn't someone heal Epaphroditus (PHIL 2:25-30), Timothy's stomach (1TIM 5:23) or Trophimus (2TIM 4:20)? Were the gifts gone after ACTS 28:28?

(66) Have you noticed that the word "unknown" in 1COR-14:2,4,13, 14,19 and 27 is in italics and therefore did not appear in the Greek texts?

(67) What was Paul's desire during the Acts period? ROM 10:1, ACTS 28:20 What about the post-Acts period? EPH 3:9, 2 TIM 4:17

(68) Will believers during the Acts period get different magnitudes of glorification? 1 COR 15:41-42

(69) Are these people "born,again" only at resurrection? 1 COR 15:50-57 Also compare 1 COR 15:50 with JN3:3

(70) Traditionally (there's that terrible word again), it is believed that Paul is talking about himself in 2 COR 12:1-5. However, he didn't know whether the man was in the body or not and he seems to refer to someone other than himself in vs 5. If you'll compare vs 4 with REV 2:7 and REV 10:4, you'll find that, most probably, the man discussed is John. This would put the date of the book of Revelation at 43 AD (see 14 years ago in vs 2), instead of the traditional date of 96 AD. It also solves the problem of why the Thessalonians knew the times and seasons (1THESS 5:1-4) while the people addressed in MT 24:36, MK 13:32 and ACTS 1:6-7, did not. Why do we keep listening to the traditions of men when the
answer to everything is in the word of God? 

(71) Does 1 COR 12:3 say that some people were cursing Jesus Christ when speaking in tongues? Are you positive that you aren't cursing Him when you are speaking in an "unknown" tongue?

(72) Did Paul get his gospel from other men such as the 12? GAL 1:11-12 Would Jesus Christ have given Paul the gospel by special revelation if others knew it and could teach it to him? Was Paul's gospel the same as the gospel of the 12? Why would Paul have to make a special trip to Jerusalem to communicate his gospel to the 12? GAL 2:2 Shouldn't they have already known it? What are the two different gospels
mentioned in GAL 2:7? What does gospel mean anyhow?

(73) GAL 3:28 seems to be an answer to a prayer found in the Jewish prayer book: thank God I wasn't born a gentile, thank God I wasn't born a slave, thank God I wasn't born a woman.

(74) It says in EPH 1:3 that God has blessed us with all spiritual blessings . Why does it say in ROM 15:27 and GAL 3:14 that Gentiles partake of Israel's spiritual blessings?

(75) Why is the calling in Ephesians (see EPH 1:4) the only calling mentioned in the Bible (except for Christ - JN. 17:24, 1 PE 1:19-20) that was made before the foundation of the world? Compare with MT 13:35, LK. 11:50, HEB 4:3, MT 25:34, HEB 9:25,26, REV 13:8, 17:8 Also note that this calling in Ephesians is the only one that goes up to where Christ ascended. Search and see.